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Overcoming Bias Commenter's avatar

This all may be true, but so what? All classical music sounds the same, unless you have a trained ear, and the same with rock or rap music. There is still immense satisfaction from listening to music with a trained ear. Yes, there are signaling effects of course - "I can understand this music and you cant", but that is not all of it.

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Overcoming Bias Commenter's avatar

Could anybody explain this to me: the title says "Cheap wines taste just as good as expensive ones". Then one goes on reading and discovers the claim to be "Individuals who are unaware of the price do not derive more enjoyment from more expensive wine". Are you all assuming that the "tasting better" relation can be reduced to some "producing more enjoyment among x-kind-of-people" formula? I have doubts about this equation even if you substitute "x-kind-of-people" with "connoisseur". All the experiment talks about is a fact about enjoyment. I can see no result regarding taste.

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